Por Qué Vender Chatarra Cerca De Mí Está Causando Mucha Polémica

The theorem that $\binom {n} {k} = \frac {n!} {k! (n-k)!}$ already assumes $0!$ is defined to be $1$. Otherwise this would be restricted to $0 <k < n$. A reason that we do define $0!$ to be $1$ is. 6 days ago · I recently became interested in Feynman's integration technique. I found a question/exercise on MSE (link) and have gotten essentially nowhere. Specifically, I was trying. Nov 23, 2025 · The main criteria is that it be asked in bad faith. ;-). I'm not entirely insincere: The question is rather how can we tell that, and a big part of the answer is "context"; it's not mainly. Feb 15, 2026 · Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and. Dec 17, 2023 · The cases a and b are invalid by restrictions 1 and 2. The case c by restriction 3. PS: about “to split a DGGS cell”, for an exact definition, see DGGS standards or this.